200-301 CCNA Exam Dumps - Entry Level of Cisco Certification - Free Latest Dumps for IT Certification Exams

200-301 CCNA Exam Dumps – Entry Level of Cisco Certification

dumps2021-09-11T03:42:58+00:00

We all know that CCNA is the entry level of Cisco certifications. Many people who want to enter Cisco industry can begin with CCNA certification. We provide the latest Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam dumps, which can help you test all the related topics. Free Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam dumps are available below for you to study.

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1. Which command must be present in a Cisco Device configuration to enable the device to resolve an FQDN?

ip host

ip name-server

ip domain-lookup

ip domain-name

2. What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

SNMP

DNS lookup

syslog

NTP

3. How does a router behave when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address.

initiates a ping request to the UR

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled.

attempts to query a DNS server on the network.

4. Which feature or protocol determines whether the QoS on the network is sufficient to support IP services?

LLDP

CDP

IP SLA

EEM

5. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

It supports protocol discovery

6. Which two QoS tools can provide congestion management? (Choose two)

CBWFQ

FRTS

CAR

PBR

7. Which option is the main function of congestion management?

discarding excess traffic

queuing traffic based on priority

classifying traffic

providing long-term storage of buffered data

8. What does traffic shaping do to reduce congestion in a network?

buffers and queues packets

buffers without queuing packets

queues without buffering packets

drops packets

9. Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path?

round robin

CBWFQ

RSVP

10. What is the purpose of traffic shaping?

be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to

to provide fair queuing for buffered flows

to mitigate delays over slow links

11. A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer.

What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

implement auto MAC address learning

implement static MAC addressing.

enable sticky MAC addressing

enable dynamic MAC address learning

12. Refer to the exhibit.

%PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/1, putting Fa0/1 in err-disable state

%PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 00AA.1AB9.D22F on port FastEthernet0/1

%LINKPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to down

%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to down

Which port security violation mode is configured on interface Fa0/1?

protect

shutdown VLAN

shutdown

restrict

13. A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded.

Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

switchport port-security violation access

switchport port-security violation restrict

switchport port-security violation protect

switchport port-security violation shutdown

14. An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK.

Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

WEP

RC4

AES

TKIP

15. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

sniffer

mesh

flex connect

local

16. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

Bronze

Platinum

Silver

Gold

17. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

allocating non overlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

18. Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured

The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

19. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

autonomous

lightweight

bridge

mobility express

20. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?

TKIP with RC4

RC4

AES-128

AES-256

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21. Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

management interface settings

QoS settings

ip address of one or more access points

SSID

Profile name

22. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

CPU ACL

TACACS

Flex ACL

RADIUS

23. Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

management

protected frame

control

action

24. When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

ASCII

base64

binary

decimal

hexadecimal

25. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

It supports autonomous and lightweight APs

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

26. Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization.

Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two)

5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels,

5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.

Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.

Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.

For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.

27. How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

28. Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

TKIP encryption

AES encryption

Scrambled encryption key

SAE encryption

29. What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnet AP mode?

Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

FlexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC

FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured

Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

30. When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?

31. Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

1,5,10

1,2,3

1,6,11

5,6,7

32. A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality.

What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

enable AAA override

enable RX-SOP

enable DTIM

enable Band Select

33. What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

send LWAPP packets to access points

use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients

monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

34. Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

HTTP

HTTPS

TACACS+

RADIUS

35. What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

different nonoverlapping channels

one nonoverlapping channel

one overlapping channel

different overlapping channels

36. Which statement about the Cisco ACI fabric is most accurate?

The APIC is able to enforce security by inserting itself into the data path.

The fabric header carries the EPG from the egress to the ingress leaf switch.

An APIC is a cluster of at least three APIC controllers, providing a single point of management without a single point of failure.

The spine switch rewrites the EPG from ingress to egress when it performs the forwarding proxy function

37. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

overlay

northbound

underlay

southbound

38. What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

It moves the control plane to a central point

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

39. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two)

Thrift

NETCONF

Open Flow

DSC

CORBA

40. Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

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41. What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

data plane

control plane

policy plane

management plane

42. What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking? (Choose two)

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates

controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function

43. In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

management plane

control plane

data plane

policy plane

44. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

modular design that is upgradable as needed

45. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a green field deployment.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

46. How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?

Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller

Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller

Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller

The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller

47. How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

48. What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs

It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode

It enables easy auto discovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment

It is designed primarily to provide network assurance

49. Drag drop the descriptions from the left on to the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

50. Drag and drop the description of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

51. Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

52. Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right.

53. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left on to the correct values on the right.

54. Drag the OSPF parameters to the correct places on the right.

55. Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.

56. Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the suitable transport protocols on the right.

57. Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

58. Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

59. Drag and Drop the benefits of a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller from the left onto the correct examples on the right

60. Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

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61. Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

62. Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the correct IP traffic types on the right.

63. Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the routing table components on the left onto the corresponding letter from the exhibit on the right. Not all options are used.

64. Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right.

Not all options are used.

65. An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.

access-list 107 deny tcp 207.16.12.0.0.0.3.255 any eq http

access-list 107 permit ip any any

On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.

66. Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.

67. Drag each route source from the left to the numbers on the right. Beginning with the lowest and ending with the highest administrative distance.

68. Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

69. Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

70. Match the functions to the corresponding layers. (Not all options are used)

71. Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

72. An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead.

Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

73. Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

74. Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

75. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

76. An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts, multicasts, and broadcasts are unable to flood the port. The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time.

Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right. (Not all commands are used)

77. Drag the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.

78. Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

79. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver.

Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

80. Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

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81. Which type of VPN uses a hub-and-spoke configuration to establish a full mesh topology?

GRE over IPsec

dynamic multipoint VPN

MPLS VPN

IPsec virtual tunnel interface

82. What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

ISATAP

GRE over IPsec

IPsec over ISATAP

GRE

83. What is a function of a remote access VPN?

used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously

allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

used exclusively when a user is connected to a company’s internal network

establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites

84. Which Cisco IOS command will indicate that interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 is configured via DHCP?

show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 dhcp

show interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

show ip interface dhcp

show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 brief

85. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

ip address dhcp

ip helper-address

ip dhcp pool

ip dhcp client

86. What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign

87. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct.

Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

R1 (config)# interface fa0/0 R1 (config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

R1 (config)# interface fa0/0 R1 (config-if)# ip address dhcp R1 (config-if)# no shutdown

R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

R1 (config)# interface fa0/0 R1 (config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

88. Refer to the exhibit.

ip arp inspection vlan 2-10

interface fastethernet 0/1

ip arp inspection trust

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

DHCP client

access point

router

89. Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names

usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain

a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

90. What is a DHCP client?

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

91. Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP?

on the switch trunk interface.

on the router closest to the client.

on the router closest to the server.

on every router along the path.

92. When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured? (Choose two)

relay agent information

database agent

address pool

smart-relay

manual bindings

93. Which command must you enter to configure a DHCP relay?

ip helper-address

ip address dhcp

ip dhcp relay

ip dhcp pool

94. Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

in the CAM table

in the VLAN database

in the DHCP binding database

in the MAC address table

95. Which output displays a JSON data representation?

A)

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

96. Which option best describes an API?

communication often uses either Java scripting, Python, XML, or simple HTTP

an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications

a stateless client-server model

request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data

97. Which option about JSON is true?

uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

used for storing information

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

98. Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?

{“key”: “value”}

[“key”, “value”]

{“key”, “value”}

(“key”: “value”)

99. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

YAML

JSON

EBCDIC

SGML

XML

100. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

reduced operational costs

reduced hardware footprint

faster changes with more reliable results

fewer network failures

increased network security

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101. Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices?

partner

open

public

private

102. What is a characteristic of the REST API?

evolved into what became SOAP

used for exchanging XML structured information over HTTP or SMTP

considered slow, complex, and rigid

most widely used API for web services

103. Refer to the exhibit.

cisco_ospf_vrf {"R1 default":

ensure => 'present',

auto_cost => '100',

}

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

Puppet

JSON

Chef

Ansible

104. Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

read

replace

create

update

105. Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

Ansible

Python

Puppet

Chef

106. Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH?

transport input telnet ssh

transport input telnet

no transport input telnet

privilege level 15

107. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment.

Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the copy function?

COP

SNMP

SMTP

ARP

108. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC.

Which action is taken by the phone?

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

It drops the traffic

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

109. Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

It sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

It coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

It requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

It manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

110. What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections

The data can pass through the cladding

111. A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

collision

runt

CRC

late collision

112. Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

SNMPv3

IP SLA

NetFlow

syslog

113. A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1,2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am.

What command should be used?

clock summer-time date

clock set

clock time zone

clock summer-time recurring

114. Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API is used?

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

between the SDN controller and switches and routers on the network

between the SDN controller and services and applications on the network

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

115. What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

Both cable types support LP connectors

Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

116. How does WPA3 improve security?

It uses SAE for authentication.

It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.

It uses RC4 for encryption.

It uses TKIP for encryption.

117. Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

bridge

route

autonomous

lightweight

118. Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on

Change the LACP mode to active

Change the LACP mode to desirable

Change the protocol to PAgP and use auto mode

119. Where does wireless authentication happen?

SSID

radio

band

Layer 2

120. What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch in a three-layer architecture model?

access C core C distribution C access

access C distribution C distribution C access

access C core C access

access -distribution C core C distribution C access

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121. What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two)

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

They allow encrypted traffic.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

122. What is the purpose of an SSID?

It provides network security

It differentiates traffic entering access points

It identities an individual access point on a WLAN

It identifies a WLAN

123. What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose two)

It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN

It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN

It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN

It is at most 32 characters long

It provides secured access to a WLAN

124. In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

expedited forwarding

traffic policing

round-robin scheduling

low-latency queuing

125. An engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass through the same port. The designated switch interface fastethernet0/1 must transmit packets using the same priority for data when they are received from the access port of the IP phone.

Which configuration must be used?

interface fastethernet0/1 switchport priority extend cos 7

interface fastethernet0/1 switchport voice vlan untagged

interface fastethernet0/1 switchport voice vlan dot1p

interface fastethernet0/1 switchport priority extend trust

126. Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

access ports

Layer 3 main interfaces

Layer 3 subinterfaces

trunk ports

127. What is a syslog facility?

host that is configured for the system to send log messages

password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

128. What are two characteristics of a public cloud implementation? (Choose two)

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations

It enables an organization to fully customize how it deploys network resources

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet

It is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

129. Which type of traffic is sent with pure IPsec?

broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites

multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location

spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites

unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

130. What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

DTP

STP

VTP

802.10

131. Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

alert

critical

notice

debug

132. What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

physical workstations are configured to share resources

services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components

wireless connections provide the sole access method to services

133. A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am.

Which command should be used?

Clock timezone

Clock summer-time-recurring

Clock summer-time date

Clock set

134. Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

200

301

404

500

135. Refer to the exhibit.

When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

Layer 2 switch

firewall

Load balancer

Router

136. Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

It discards the packets

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

It floods packets to all learned next hops

It queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned

137. Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right. Not all functions are used.

138. What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

It centralizes the data plane for the network

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture

139. When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

broadcast to all ports

forwarded to the first available port

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

140. Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

Page 8 of 10

141. Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?

preserve public IPv6 address space

support the NAT protocol

reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses

conserve public IPv4 addressing

142. What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

sends the default route to the hosts on a network

filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

ensures a loop-free physical topology

143. After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AA

Enable the allow AAA Override

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

Enable the Event Driven RR

144. An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured.

Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right. Not all commands are used.

145. Refer to the exhibit.

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

the path through R2, because the EBGP administrative distance is 20

the path through R2, because the IBGP administrative distance is 200

the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110

the path through R3, because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP

146. What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.

It summarizes the operational status of each wireless device on the network.

It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

147. Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

TFTP

FTP

DTP

SMTP

148. Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?

application layer and the management layer

application layer and the infrastructure layer

control layer and the application layer

control layer and the infrastructure layer

149. Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

150. When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original IP packet?

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

IPsec transport mode with AH

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

IPsec transport mode with ESP

151. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two)

C Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

C Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

152. What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks

processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network

forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection

explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

153. What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

154. How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

configure extended VLANs

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

enable dynamic ARP inspection

155. Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

156. Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

192.168.12.2

192.168.13.3

192.168.14.4

192.168.15.5

157. Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two)

task

cookbook

recipe

model

playbook

158. How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

159. In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

Data

Control

Management

Application

160. Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two)

Telnet

SSH

HTTP

HTTPS

TFTP

Page 9 of 10

161. When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

DHCP relay agent

DHCP server

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPOFFER

162. An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host.

What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

straight cable

router

hypervisor

switch

163. What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two)

provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

serves as the network aggregation point

physical connection point for a LAN printer

is the backbone for the network topology

164. Which QoS tool can you use to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

WRED

FIFO

WFQ

165. On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

STP

DNS

SNMP

DHCP

166. Refer to the exhibit.

R2#show ip route

C 192.68.1.0/26 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two)

192.168.1.17

192.168.1.61

192.168.1.64

192.168.1.127

192.168.1.254

167. Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two)

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

Eliminating training needs

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

Reducing hardware footprint

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

168. What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.

TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.

UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

169. What are network endpoints?

a threat to the network if they are compromised

support inter-VLAN connectivity

act as routers to connect a user to the service prowler network

enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet

170. What does physical access control regulate?

access to specific networks based on business function

access to servers to prevent malicious activity

access to computer networks and file systems

access to networking equipment and facilities

171. Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

172. What must be considered when using 802.11a?

It is compatible with 802.11g and 802.11-compliant wireless devices

It is chosen over 802.11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

It is susceptible to interference from 2.4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

It is used in place of 802.11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

173. Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination

174. An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP.

Neighbor discovery is disabled.

interface Gi1/0

description HQ_DC3392-9383

duplex full

speed 100

negotiation auto

lldp transmit

lldp receive

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

Enable LLDP globally

Disable autonegotiation

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

175. How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

reducing bandwidth usage

by reducing packet loss

by differentiating voice and video traffic

by increasing jitter

176. Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two)

The device is assigned to the Global site.

The device is placed into the Unmanaged state.

The device is placed into the Provisioned state.

The device is placed into the Managed state.

The device is assigned to the Local site.

177. What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two)

Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state

Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications

Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

178. A network administrator is asked to configure VLANs 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANs with unused remaining.

Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

configure port in the native VLAN

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

configure in a nondefault native VLAN

configure ports as access ports

179. Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

rate-limits certain traffic

listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding

provides DDoS mitigation

propagates VLAN information between switches

180. Which plane is centralized by an SON controller?

data plane

management plane

control plane

services plane

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181. What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two)

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

182. Refer to the exhibit.

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR.

Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

Option A

R4(config)#interface gi0/0

R4(config-if)#ip ospf priority 20

R5(config)#interface gi0/0

R5(config-if)#ip ospf priority 10

Option B

R2(config)#interface gi0/0

R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 259

R3(config)#interface gi0/0

R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 256

Option C

R3(config)#interface gi0/0

R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 255

R2(config)#interface gi0/0

R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 240

Option D

R5(config)#interface gi0/0

R5(config-if)#ip ospf priority 120

R4(config)#interface gi0/0

R4(config-if)#ip ospf priority 110

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

183. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

110

128

192

193

184. Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

185. Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

using a non-default native VLAN

Dynamic ARP Inspection

DHCP snooping

802.1x

186. What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures

Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network

New devices are onboarded with minimal effort

Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes

Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools

200-301 CCNA Exam Dumps – Entry Level of Cisco Certification

200-301 CCNA Exam Dumps – Entry Level of Cisco Certification

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