Updated Questions for Cloud Security Alliance CCAK Exam

dumps2024-12-12T10:22:07+08:00

Cloud Security Alliance CCAK exam questions have been updated. Many candidates are worried about passing CCAK exam. Learning online ISACA certification CCAK exam updated questions are a neccessary step in your preparation. With them, you can save much time and energy. Free updated Cloud Security Alliance CCAK exam questions are below.

Page 1 of 6

1. Which of the following should be an assurance requirement when an organization is migrating to a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider?

Location of data

Amount of server storage

Access controls

Type of network technology

2. In a multi-level supply chain structure where cloud service provider A relies on other sub cloud services, the provider should ensure that any compliance requirements relevant to the provider are:

passed to the sub cloud service providers based on the sub cloud service providers' geographic location.

passed to the sub cloud service providers.

treated as confidential information and withheld from all sub cloud service providers.

treated as sensitive information and withheld from certain sub cloud service providers.

3. Which of the following is the PRIMARY component to determine the success or failure of an organization’s cloud compliance program?

Defining the metrics and indicators to monitor the implementation of the compliance program

Determining the risk treatment options to be used in the compliance program

Mapping who possesses the information and data that should drive the compliance goals

Selecting the external frameworks that will be used as reference

4. Organizations maintain mappings between the different control frameworks they adopt to:

help identify controls with common assessment status.

avoid duplication of work when assessing compliance,

help identify controls with different assessment status.

start a compliance assessment using the latest assessment.

5. To assist an organization with planning a cloud migration strategy to execution, an auditor should recommend the use of:

enterprise architecture (EA).

object-oriented architecture.

service-oriented architecture.

software architecture

6. The CSA STAR Certification is based on criteria outlined the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) in addition to:

ISO/IEC 27001 implementation.

GB/T 22080-2008.

SOC 2 Type 1 or 2 reports.

GDPR CoC certification.

7. What does “The Egregious 11" refer to?

The OWASP Top 10 adapted to cloud computing

A list of top shortcomings of cloud computing

A list of top breaches in cloud computing

A list of top threats to cloud computing

8. Which objective is MOST appropriate to measure the effectiveness of password policy?

The number of related incidents decreases.

Attempts to log with weak credentials increases.

The number of related incidents increases.

Newly created account credentials satisfy requirements.

9. An auditor wants to get information about the operating effectiveness of controls addressing privacy, availability, and confidentiality of a service organization.

Which of the following can BEST help to gain the required information?

ISAE 3402 report

ISO/IEC 27001 certification

SOC1 Type 1 report

SOC2 Type 2 report

10. Which of the following is a cloud-specific security standard?

15027017

15014001

15022301

15027701

Page 2 of 6

11. Supply chain agreements between a cloud service provider and cloud customers should, at a minimum, include:

regulatory guidelines impacting the cloud customer.

audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications with agreement terms.

the organizational chart of the provider.

policies and procedures of the cloud customer

12. Which of the following is the reason for designing the Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ)?

Cloud service providers need the CAIQ to improve quality of customer service.

Cloud service providers can document their security and compliance controls.

Cloud service providers can document roles and responsibilities for cloud security.

Cloud users can use CAIQ to sign statement of work (SOW) with cloud access security

13. An organization employing the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) to perform a compliance assessment leverages the Scope Applicability direct mapping to:

obtain the ISO/IEC 27001 certification from an accredited certification body (CB) following the ISO/IEC 17021-1 standard.

determine whether the organization can be considered fully compliant with the mapped standards because of the implementation of every CCM Control Specification.

understand which controls encompassed by the CCM may already be partially or fully implemented because of the compliance with other standards.

14. Which of the following are the three MAIN phases of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) mapping methodology?

Initiation ― Execution ― Monitoring and Controlling

Plan - Develop - Release

Preparation ― Execution - Peer Review and Publication

15. When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, what is the scope of the technical impact identification step?

Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system.

Determine the impact on the physical and environmental security of the organization, excluding informational assets.

Determine the impact on the controls that were selected by the organization to respond to identified risks.

Determine the impact on the financial, operational, compliance, and reputation of the

16. Which of the following is an example of availability technical impact?

The cloud provider reports a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server.

A hacker using a stolen administrator identity alters the discount percentage in the product database.

A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours.

An administrator inadvertently clicked on phish bait, exposing the company to a ransomware attack

17. Which of the following is an example of financial business impact?

A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours, resulting in millions in lost sales.

A hacker using a stolen administrator identity brings down the Software of a Service (SaaS) sales and marketing systems, resulting in the inability to process customer orders or manage customer relationships.

While the breach was reported in a timely manner to the CEO, the CFO and CISO blamed each other in public, resulting in a loss of public confidence that led the board to replace all

18. After finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, a cybersecurity criminal is able to access an encrypted file system and successfully manages to overwrite parts of some files with random data.

In reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology, how would the technical impact of this incident be categorized?

As an availability breach

As a control breach

As a confidentiality breach

As an integrity breach

19. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with hidden interdependencies between cloud services?

The IT department does not clearly articulate the cloud to the organization.

There is a lack of visibility over the cloud service providers' supply chain.

Customers do not understand cloud technologies in enough detail.

Cloud services are very complicated.

20. It is MOST important for an auditor to be aware that an inventory of assets within a cloud environment:

should be mapped only if discovered during the audit.

is not fundamental for the security management program, as this is a cloud service.

can be a misleading source of data.

is fundamental for the security management program

Page 3 of 6

21. What do cloud service providers offer to encourage clients to extend the cloud platform?

Cloud console

Reward programs

Access to the cloud infrastructure

Application programming interfaces (APIs)

22. Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is MOST important for the auditor to be aware that the:

client organization has a clear understanding of the provider s suppliers.

suppliers are accountable for the provider's service that they are providing.

client organization does not need to worry about the provider's suppliers, as this is the provider's responsibility.

client organization and provider are both responsible for the provider's suppliers.

23. Which of the following MOST enhances the internal stakeholder decision-making process for the remediation of risks identified from an organization's cloud compliance program?

Establishing ownership and accountability

Reporting emerging threats to senior stakeholders

Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) for multi-cloud environments

Automating risk monitoring and reporting processes

24. Visibility to which of the following would give an auditor the BEST view of design and implementation decisions when an organization uses programmatic automation for Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) deployments?

Source code within build scripts

Output from threat modeling exercises

Service level agreements (SLAs)

Results from automated testing

25. The MAIN limitation of relying on traditional cloud compliance assurance approaches such as SOC2 attestations is that:

they can only be performed by skilled cloud audit service providers.

they are subject to change when the regulatory climate changes.

they provide a point-in-time snapshot of an organization's compliance posture.

they place responsibility for demonstrating compliance on the vendor organization.

26. An organization that is utilizing a community cloud is contracting an auditor to conduct a review on behalf of the group of organizations within the cloud community.

Of the following, to whom should the auditor report the findings?

Management of the organization being audited

Shareholders and interested parties

Cloud service provider

Public

27. Which of the following standards is designed to be used by organizations for cloud services that intend to select controls within the process of implementing an information security management system based on ISO/IEC 27001?

ISO/IEC 27017:2015

ISO/IEC 27002

NIST SP 800-146

Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

28. During an audit, it was identified that a critical application hosted in an off-premises cloud is not part

of the organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP). Management stated that it is responsible for ensuring the cloud service provider has a plan that is tested annually.

What should be the auditor's NEXT course of action?

Review the security white paper of the provider.

Review the provider’s audit reports.

Review the contract and DR capability.

Plan an audit of the provider

29. Which of the following is the BEST tool to perform cloud security control audits?

Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2

ISO 27001

30. When an organization is using cloud services, the security responsibilities largely vary depending on the service delivery model used, while the accountability for compliance should remain with the:

cloud user.

cloud service provider. 0

cloud customer.

certification authority (CA)

Page 4 of 6

31. A cloud service provider utilizes services of other service providers for its cloud service.

Which of the following is the BEST approach for the auditor while performing the audit for the cloud service?

The auditor should review the service providers' security controls even more strictly, as they are further separated from the cloud customer.

The auditor should review the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service provider to help direct and estimate the level of effort and analysis the auditor should apply.

As the contract for the cloud service is between the cloud customer and the cloud service provider, there is no need for the auditor to review the services provided by the service providers.

As the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service providers is governed by separate contracts between them, there is no need for the auditor to review the services

32. The PRIMARY objective for an auditor to understand the organization's context for a cloud audit is to:

determine whether the organization has carried out control self-assessment (CSA) and validated audit reports of the cloud service providers.

validate an understanding of the organization's current state and how the cloud audit plan fits into the existing audit approach.

validate the organization's performance effectiveness utilizing cloud service provider solutions.

validate whether an organization has a cloud audit plan in place.

33. During the planning phase of a cloud audit, the PRIMARY goal of a cloud auditor is to:

specify appropriate tests.

address audit objectives.

minimize audit resources.

collect sufficient evidence.

34. An auditor examining a cloud service provider's service level agreement (SLA) should be MOST concerned about whether:

the agreement includes any operational matters that are material to the service operations.

the agreement excludes any sourcing and financial matters that are material in meeting the service level agreement (SLA).

the agreement includes any service availability matters that are material to the service operations.

the agreement excludes any operational matters that are material to the service operations

35. A cloud auditor should use statistical sampling rather than judgment (nonstatistical) sampling when:

generalized audit software is unavailable.

the auditor wants to avoid sampling risk.

the probability of error must be objectively quantified.

the tolerable error rate cannot be determined.

36. The FINAL decision to include a material finding in a cloud audit report should be made by the:

auditee's senior management.

organization's chief executive officer (CEO).

cloud auditor.

organization's chief information security officer (CISO)

37. What aspect of Software as a Service (SaaS) functionality and operations would the cloud customer be responsible for and should be audited?

Access controls

Vulnerability management

Patching

Source code reviews

38. What areas should be reviewed when auditing a public cloud?

Identity and access management (IAM) and data protection

Source code reviews and hypervisor

Patching and configuration

Vulnerability management and cyber security reviews

39. Which of the following aspects of risk management involves identifying the potential reputational and financial harm when an incident occurs?

Impact analysis

Likelihood

Mitigation

Residual risk

40. Which of the following would be the MOST critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit?

Certifications with global security standards specific to cloud are not reviewed, and the impact of noted findings are not assessed.

Application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures.

Outsourced cloud service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data occurred at the cloud service provider.

The organization is not using a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements

Page 5 of 6

41. What legal documents should be provided to the auditors in relation to risk management?

Enterprise cloud strategy and policy

Contracts and service level agreements (SLAs) of cloud service providers

Policies and procedures established around third-party risk assessments

Inventory of third-party attestation reports

42. In relation to testing business continuity management and operational resilience, an auditor should review which of the following database documentation?

Database backup and replication guidelines

System backup documentation

Incident management documentation

Operational manuals

43. The MOST critical concept for managing the building and testing of code in DevOps is:

continuous build.

continuous delivery.

continuous integration.

continuous deployment.

44. What is a sign that an organization has adopted a shift-left concept of code release cycles?

Large entities with slower release cadences and geographically dispersed systems

A waterfall model to move resources through the development to release phases

Maturity of start-up entities with high-iteration to low-volume code commits

Incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early

45. Which of the following can be used to determine whether access keys are stored in the source code or any other configuration files during development?

Static code review

Dynamic code review

Vulnerability scanning

Credential scanning

46. What is an advantage of using dynamic application security testing (DAST) over static application security testing (SAST) methodology?

DAST is slower but thorough.

Unlike SAST, DAST is a black box and programming language agnostic.

DAST can dynamically integrate with most continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) tools.

DAST delivers more false positives than SAST

47. Which of the following BEST ensures adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment?

Separation of production and development pipelines

Ensuring segregation of duties in the production and development pipelines

Role-based access controls in the production and development pipelines

Periodic review of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline audit logs to identify any access violations

48. The PRIMARY purpose of Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to:

facilitate an effective relationship between the cloud service provider and cloud client.

enable the cloud service provider to prioritize resources to meet its own requirements.

provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider.

ensure understanding of true risk and perceived risk by the cloud service users

49. An auditor identifies that a cloud service provider received multiple customer inquiries and requests for proposal (RFPs) during the last month.

Which of the following What should be the BEST recommendation to reduce the provider’s burden?

The provider can answer each customer individually.

The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry.

The provider can schedule a call with each customer.

The provider can share all security reports with customers to streamline the process

50. Which of the following is the MOST important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider?

Documentation criteria for the audit evidence

Testing procedure to be performed

Processes and systems to be audited

Updated audit work program

Page 6 of 6

51. The BEST method to report continuous assessment of a cloud provider’s services to the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) is through:

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) assessment by a third-party auditor on a periodic basis.

tools selected by the third-party auditor.

SOC 2 Type 2 attestation.

a set of dedicated application programming interfaces (APIs).

52. To support a customer's verification of the cloud service provider claims regarding its responsibilities according to the shared responsibility model, which of the following tools and techniques is appropriate?

External audit

Internal audit

Contractual agreement

Security assessment

53. Which of the following is a category of trust in cloud computing?

Loyalty-based trust

Background-based trust

Reputation-based trust

Transparency-based trust

54. When establishing cloud governance, an organization should FIRST test by migrating:

legacy applications to the cloud.

a few applications to the cloud.

all applications at once to the cloud.

complex applications to the cloud

55. Which of the following methods can be used by a cloud service provider with a cloud customer that does not want to share security and control information?

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

Independent auditor report

First-party audit

Industry certifications

Updated Questions for Cloud Security Alliance CCAK Exam

Updated Questions for Cloud Security Alliance CCAK Exam

Share this post

Leave a Reply Cancel reply

Related Posts