CCOA ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst Exam Free Dumps

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Passing CCOA ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst exam is not difficult now. Learning CCOA exam information is a requried step. There are 115 Multiple-choice questions and 25 performance-based questions in real CCOA exam, and you have 4 hours to answer all the questions. CCOA exam is designed for cybersecurity analysts with 2 to 3 years of experience. We provide the latest ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst CCOA exam dumps, which can make sure you pass the test easily. Free ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst CCOA exam dumps are available below.

Page 1 of 6

1. A bank employee is found to be exfiltration sensitive information by uploading it via email.

Which of the following security measures would be MOST effective in detecting this type of insider threat?

Data loss prevention (DIP)

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

Network segmentation

Security information and event management (SIEM)

2. Which of the following network topologies is MOST resilient to network failures and can prevent a single point of failure?

Mesh

Star

Bus

Ring

3. Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a poorly enforced bring your own device (8YOD) policy?

A. Weak passwords

B. Network congestion

C. Shadow IT

D. Unapproved social media posts

4. Which of the following roles typically performs routine vulnerability scans?

A. Incident response manager

B. Information security manager

C. IT auditor

D. IT security specialist

5. An organization was breached via a web application attack to a database in which user inputs were not validated.

This can BEST be described as which type of attack?

Broken access control

Infection

Buffer overflow

X-Path

6. Which of the following is a KEY difference between traditional deployment methods and continuous integration/continuous deployment (CI/CD)?

A. CI/CD decreases the frequency of updates.

B. CI/CD decreases the amount of testing.

C. CI/CD increases the number of errors.

D. CI/CD Increases the speed of feedback.

7. Exposing the session identifier in a URL is an example of which web application-specific risk?

A. Cryptographic failures

B. Insecure design and implementation

C. Identification and authentication failures

D. Broken access control

8. Cyber threat intelligence is MOST important for:

A. performing root cause analysis for cyber attacks.

B. configuring SIEM systems and endpoints.

C. recommending best practices for database security.

D. revealing adversarial tactics, techniques, and procedures.

9. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to obtain business owner approval of cybersecurity initiatives across an organisation?

A. Provide data classifications.

B. Create a steering committee.

C. Generate progress reports.

D. Conduct an Internal audit.

10. Target discovery and service enumeration would MOST likely be used by an attacker who has the initial objective of:

A. corrupting process memory, likely resulting in system Instability.

B. port scanning to identify potential attack vectors.

C. deploying and maintaining backdoor system access.

D. gaining privileged access in a complex network environment.

Page 2 of 6

11. Which of the following is the MOST effective approach for tracking vulnerabilities in an organization's systems and applications?

A. Walt for external security researchers to report vulnerabilities

B. Rely on employees to report any vulnerabilities they encounter.

C. Implement regular vulnerability scanning and assessments.

D. Track only those vulnerabilities that have been publicly disclosed.

12. A small organization has identified a potential risk associated with its outdated backup system and has decided to implement a new cloud-based real-time backup system to reduce the likelihood of data loss.

Which of the following risk responses has the organization chosen?

Risk mitigation

Risk avoidance

Risk transfer

Risk acceptance

13. Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to balance cybersecurity risks and address compliance requirements?

A. Accept that compliance requirements may conflict with business needs and operate in a diminished capacity to achieve compliance.

B. Meet the minimum standards for the compliance requirements to ensure minimal impact to business operations,

C. Evaluate compliance requirements in the context at business objectives to ensure requirements can be implemented appropriately.

D. Implement only the compliance requirements that do not Impede business functions or affect cybersecurity risk.

14. Which of the following MOST effectively minimizes the impact of a control failure?

A. Business continuity plan [BCP

B. Business impact analysis (B1A)

C. Defense in depth

D. Information security policy

15. Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for an organization to adopt a cybersecurity framework?

A. To ensure compliance with specific regulations

B. To automate cybersecurity processes and reduce the need for human intervention

C. To provide a standardized approach to cybetsecurity risk management

D. To guarantee protection against possible cyber threats

16. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk resulting from a Domain Name System (DNS) cache poisoning attack?

A. Reduced system availability

B. Noncompliant operations

C. Loss of network visibility

D. Loss of sensitive data

17. Which of the following is foundational for implementing a Zero Trust model?

A. Comprehensive process documentation

B. Robust network monitoring

C. Routine vulnerability and penetration testing

D. Identity and access management (IAM) controls

18. During a post-mortem incident review meeting, it is noted that a malicious attacker attempted to achieve network persistence by using vulnerabilities that appeared to be lower risk but ultimately allowed the attacker to escalate their privileges.

Which of the following did the attacker MOST likely apply?

Exploit chaining

Brute force attack

Cross-site scripting

Deployment of rogue wireless access points

19. An organization uses containerization for its business application deployments, and all containers run on the same host, so they MUST share the same:

A. user data.

B. database.

C. operating system.

D. application.

20. Which of the following MOST directly supports the cybersecurity objective of integrity?

A. Data backups

B. Digital signatures

C. Least privilege

D. Encryption

Page 3 of 6

21. Which of the following is the BEST method for hardening an operating system?

A. Implementing a host Intrusion detection system (HIOS)

B. Manually signing all drivers and applications

C. Removing unnecessary services and applications

D. Applying only critical updates

22. Which of the following roles is responsible for approving exceptions to and deviations from the incident management team charter on an ongoing basis?

A. Security steering group

B. Cybersecurity analyst

C. Chief information security officer (CISO)

D. Incident response manager

23. Which of the following would BCST enable an organization to prioritize remediation activities when multiple vulnerabilities are identified?

A. Business Impact analysis (BIA)

B. Vulnerability exception process

C. executive reporting process

D. Risk assessment

24. Which of the following cyber crime tactics involves targets being contacted via text message by an attacker posing as a legitimate entity?

A. Hacking

B. Vishing

C. Smishing

D. Cyberstalking

25. A penetration tester has been hired and given access to all code, diagrams, and documentation.

Which type of testing is being conducted?

Full knowledge

Unlimited scope

No knowledge

Partial knowledge

26. As part of a penetration testing program, which team facilitates education and training of architects and developers to encourage better security and awareness?

Orange team

Red team

Green team

Yellow team

27. Which layer of the TCP/IP stack promotes the reliable transmission of data?

A. Link

B. Internet

C. Application

D. Transport

28. Which of the following has been defined when a disaster recovery plan (DRP) requires daily backups?

A. Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)

B. Recovery time objective (RTO|

C. Recovery point objective {RPO)

D. Mean time to failure (MTTF)

29. Which of the following utilities is MOST suitable for administrative tasks and automation?

Command line Interface (CLI)

Integrated development environment (IDE)

System service dispatcher (SSO)

Access control list (ACL)

30. When identifying vulnerabilities, which of the following should a cybersecurity analyst determine FIRST?

A. The number of vulnerabilities Identifiable by the scanning tool

B. The number of tested asset types included in the assessment

C. The vulnerability categories possible for the tested asset types

D. The vulnerability categories Identifiable by the scanning tool

Page 4 of 6

31. Which of the following should be considered FIRST when determining how to protect an organization's information assets?

A. A prioritized Inventory of IT assets

B. The organization's business model

C. Results of vulnerability assessments

D. The organization's risk reporting

32. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for tracking the effectiveness of vulnerability remediation processes within an organization?

A. To provide reports to senior management so that they can justify the expense of vulnerability management tools

B. To identify executives who are responsible for delaying patching and report them to the board

C. To ensure employees responsible for patching vulnerabilities are actually doing their job correctly

D. To reduce the likelihood of a threat actor successfully exploiting vulnerabilities In the organization's systems

33. Which of the following BEST describes JSON web tokens?

They can be used to store user Information and session data.

They can only be used to authenticate users in web applications.

They are signed using a public key and verified using a private key.

They are only used with symmetric encryption.

34. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of compiled programming languages?

A. Streamlined development

B. Faster application execution

C. Flexible deployment

D. Ability to change code in production

35. Which type of access control can be modified by a user or data owner?

A. Mandatory access control

B. Role-based access control (RBAC)

C. Discretionary access control

D. Rule-based access control

36. An organization's hosted database environment is encrypted by the vendor at rest and in transit. The database was accessed, and critical data was stolen.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. Use of group rights for access

B. Improper backup procedures

C. Misconfigured access control list (ACL)

D. Insufficiently strong encryption

37. An attacker has exploited an e-commerce website by injecting arbitrary syntax that was passed to and executed by the underlying operating system.

Which of the following tactics did the attacker MOST likely use?

Command injection

Injection

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) Injection

Insecure direct object reference

38. Which of the following should be completed FIRST in a data loss prevention (OLP) system implementation project?

A. Deployment scheduling

B. Data analysis

C. Data Inventory

D. Resource allocation

39. A change advisory board Is meeting to review a remediation plan for a critical vulnerability, with a cybersecurity analyst in attendance.

When asked about measures to address post-implementation issues, which o! the following would be the analyst's BEST response?

A. The remediation should be canceled if post-implementation issues are anticipated.

B. Details for rolling back applied changes should be included In the remediation plan.

C. The severity of the vulnerability determines whether a rollback plan is required.

D. The presence of additional onsite staff during the implementation removes the need for a rollback plan.

40. In which cloud service model are clients responsible for regularly updating the operating system?

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Database as a Service (OBaaS)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

Page 5 of 6

41. An organization's financial data was compromised and posted online. The forensics review confirms proper access rights and encryption of the database at the host site.

A lack of which of the following controls MOST likely caused the exposure?

A. Continual backups

B. Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

C. Encryption o' data in transit

D. Properly configured firewall

42. An organization has received complaints from a number of its customers that their data has been breached. However, after an investigation, the organization cannot detect any indicators of compromise.

The breach was MOST likely due to which type of attack?

Supply chain attack

Zero-day attack

injection attack

Man-in the-middle attack

43. Which of the following is MOST helpful to significantly reduce application risk throughout the system development life cycle (SOLC)?

Security by design approach

Security through obscurity approach

Peer code reviews

Extensive penetration testing

44. Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining an effective risk management program?

A. Approved budget

B. Automated reporting

C. Monitoring regulations

D. Ongoing review

45. Which of the following Is a PRIMARY function of a network intrusion detection system (IDS)?

A. Dropping network traffic if suspicious packets are detected

B. Analyzing whether packets are suspicious

C. Filtering incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security policies

D. Preventing suspicious packets from being executed

46. Which of the following BEST describes static application security testing (SAST)?

A. Vulnerability scanning

B. Code review

C. Attack simulation

D. Configuration management

47. Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk associated with cybercriminals eavesdropping on unencrypted network traffic?

A. Data notification

B. Data exfiltration

C. Data exposure

D. Data deletion

48. Which of the following has been established when a business continuity manager explains that a critical system can be unavailable up to 4 hours before operation is significantly impaired?

A. Maximum tolerable downtime (MID)

B. Service level agreement (SLA)

C. Recovery point objective (RPO)

D. Recovery time objective (RTO)

49. Which of the following Is a control message associated with the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)?

A. Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol version Is unsupported.

B. Destination is unreachable.

C. 404 is not found.

D. Webserver Is available.

50. An organization moving its payment card system into a separate location on its network (or security reasons is an example of network:

A. redundancy.

B. segmentation.

C. encryption.

D. centricity.

Page 6 of 6

51. Which of the following can be used to identity malicious activity through a take user identity?

A. Honeypot

B. Honey account

C. Indicator of compromise (IoC)

D. Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

52. Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of load balancers in cloud networking?

Distributing traffic between multiple servers

Optimizing database queries

Monitoring network traffic

Load testing applications

53. Which of the following is .1 PRIMARY output from the development of a cyber risk management strategy?

A. Accepted processes are Identified.

B. Business goals are communicated.

C. Compliance implementation is optimized.

D. Mitigation activities are defined.

54. Which of the following should be the ULTIMATE outcome of adopting enterprise governance of information and technology in cybersecurity?

A. Business resilience

B. Risk optimization

C. Resource optimization

D. Value creation

55. Which of the following is a PRIMARY risk that can be introduced through the use of a site-to-site virtual private network (VPN) with a service provider?

A. Loss of data integrity

B. Gaps in visibility to user behavior

C. Data exfiltration

D. Denial of service (DoS) attacks

CCOA ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst Exam Free Dumps

CCOA ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst Exam Free Dumps

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