Check Point CCSA R81 156-215.81 Exam Practice Questions

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Check Point CCSA R81 156-215.81 exam practice questions are online, which are good enough for you to prepare for the test. In the real Check Point 156-215.81 exam, there are 90 questions, and you have 90 minutes to finish the test. The required passing score for CCSA R81 156-215.81 exam is 70%. Free Check Point CCSA R81 156-215.81 exam practice questions are below.

Page 1 of 12

1. Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

Command line interface; WebUI

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

WebUI; Gaia Interface

GaiaUI; command line interface

2. Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Common Name

Country

User container

Organizational Unit

3. In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?

Logging & Monitoring

None - the data is available by default

Monitoring Blade

SNMP

4. When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Security policy

Inbound chain

Outbound chain

Decryption is not supported

5. Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

Application Control

Data Awareness

Identity Awareness

Threat Emulation

6. In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log.

Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Accounting

Suppression

Accounting/Suppression

Accounting/Extended

7. What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

8. What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?

RFC 1939

RFC 1950

RFC 1918

RFC 793

9. From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

Verify a Security Policy

Open a terminal shell

Add a static route

View Security Management GUI Clients

10. Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

AD Query

Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent

Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication

RADIUS and Account Logon

Page 2 of 12

11. What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.

It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.

It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

12. Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.

Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.

No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server

Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.

13. Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

IPS blade

IPSEC VPN Blade

Identity Awareness Blade

Firewall Blade

14. The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to

detect and block malware.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

Next Generation Threat Emulation

Next Generation Threat Extraction

Next Generation Firewall

15. What are the types of Software Containers?

Smart Console, Security Management, and Security Gateway

Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

Security Management, Log & Monitoring, and Security Policy

Security Management, Standalone, and Security Gateway

16. Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

17. CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.

The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.

The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.

Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

18. If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

19. Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

SecureID

Radius

DynamicID

TACACS

20. What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users?

Use Office Mode

Use identity agents

Share user identities between gateways

Use captive portal

Page 3 of 12

21. What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

Verification tool

Verification licensing

Automatic licensing

Automatic licensing and Verification tool

22. A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways.

What is considered part of the zone?

The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.

Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.

The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.

The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

23. Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

cphaprob state

cphaprob status

cphaprob

cluster state

24. Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers using what protocol?

Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

25. A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the

network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time.

What tool can you use to block this traffic?

Anti-Bot protection

Anti-Malware protection

Policy-based routing

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules

26. What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

27. In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

Upgrade the software version

Open WebUI

Open SSH

Open service request with Check Point Technical Support

28. Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

29. What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

Application Independence

High Performance

Scalability

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

30. An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops.

Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

AD Query

Browser-Based Authentication

Identity Agents

Terminal Servers Agent

Page 4 of 12

31. Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

Down

No Response

Inactive

Failed

32. Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

Object Browser

Object Editor

Object Navigator

Object Explorer

33. Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers? (Choose the best answer.)

IPS

Anti-Virus

Anti-Malware

Content Awareness

34. Fill in the blank: The _____ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy

packages.

Concurrent policy packages

Concurrent policies

Global Policies

Shared policies

35. R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Versions R77 and higher

Versions R76 and higher

Versions R75.20 and higher

Version R75 and higher

36. Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

Pentagon, star, and combination

Star, octagon, and combination

Combined and star

Meshed, star, and combination

37. Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

X-chkp-sid

Accept-Charset

Proxy-Authorization

Application

38. How would you determine the software version from the CLI?

fw ver

fw stat

fw monitor

cpinfo

39. In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.

mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

40. You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet.

How can you fix this?

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

On the Security Management Server object, check the box “Identity Logging”

Page 5 of 12

41. Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

sysdown

exit

halt

shut-down

42. Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?

Security zones will not work in Automatic NAT rules

Security zone will not work in Manual NAT rules

Security zones will not work in firewall policy layer

Security zones cannot be used in network topology

43. The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches.

Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or alert

Yes, it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged

Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways

44. Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

SSL

Captive Portal

PKI

RSA

45. Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

Formal; corporate

Local; formal

Local; central

Central; local

46. Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

Manage and Command Line

Logs and Monitor

Security Policies

Gateway and Servers

47. True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

48. After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

49. In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

Publish changes

Save changes

Install policy

Install database

50. When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.

SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

Page 6 of 12

51. Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.

In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.

Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

52. A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?

Allow security audits.

Handle traffic as defined in the policy.

Monitor sequence activity.

Block suspicious activity.

53. Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Full

Custom

Complete

Light

54. Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Microsoft Publisher

JSON

Microsoft Word

RC4 Encryption

55. Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

IPS

Application Control and URL Filtering

Threat Emulation

Anti-virus

56. Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

Security Gateway Contract file

Service Contract file

License Management file

License Contract file

57. How do you manage Gaia?

Through CLI and WebUI

Through CLI only

Through SmartDashboard only

Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

58. Log query results can be exported to what file format?

Word Document (docx)

Comma Separated Value (csv)

Portable Document Format (pdf)

Text (txt)

59. What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

60. Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites

You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers

Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers.

You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers

Page 7 of 12

61. When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

SmartConsole installed device

Check Point user center

Security Management Server

Security Gateway

62. Examine the sample Rule Base.

What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?

No errors or Warnings

Verification Error. Empty Source-List in Rule 5 (Mail Inbound)

Verification Error. Rule 4 (Web Inbound) hides Rule 6 (Webmaster access)

Verification Error. Rule 7 (Clean-Up Rule) hides Implicit Clean-up Rule

63. SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:

Matching a log against each event definition

Create an event candidate

Matching a log against local exclusions

Matching a log against global exclusions

64. Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

IPS

Anti-Virus

Anti-Spam

Anti-bot

65. What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

66. Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10.

What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

CPUSE online upgrade

CPUSE offline upgrade

SmartUpdate upgrade

67. The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways.

Which statement best describes this Secure Internal Communication (SIC)?

After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same IC

Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.

A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS IC

New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.

68. Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Capsule Docs

Capsule Cloud

Capsule Enterprise

Capsule Workspace

69. Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

SmartUpdate

cpconfig

SmartConsole

sysconfig

70. What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Clish

Admin

Normal

Expert

Page 8 of 12

71. What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

SmartUpdate installation

DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

Cloud based installation

72. Check Point licenses come in two forms.

What are those forms?

Central and Local.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

On-premise and Public Cloud.

Security Gateway and Security Management.

73. In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

74. You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information.

What is the MOST likely reason?

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

Log Trimming is enabled.

Logging has disk space issues

Content Awareness is not enabled.

75. Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

Central

Corporate

Local

Formal

76. In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

77. What is true about the IPS-Blade?

in R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

in R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

in R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

in R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

78. The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.

When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.

Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).

When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.

79. What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

Application Control, DLP

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.

ACL, SandBlast, MPT

IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

80. In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

Manage and Settings

Logs and Monitor

Security Policies

Gateways and Servers

Page 9 of 12

81. You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher.

How can you enable them?

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

fw ctl miltik pq enable

82. When should you generate new licenses?

Before installing contract files.

After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.

Only when the license is upgraded.

83. Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

cpconfig

Management Command Line

SmartConsole

SmartUpdate

84. Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

SmartUpdate

cpconfig

SmartConsole

sysconfig

85. How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

One

Three

Two

Infinite

86. Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

CPM

HTTPS

FWD

CPD

87. Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

Is configured using cpconfig

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

88. Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup. or SmartConsole

WebU

or SmartUpdate

SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

SmartConsole, WebU

or CLI

89. In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?

From a 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance

From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server

From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server

From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance

90. Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

Anti-Bot

None - both Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot are required for this

Anti-Virus

None - both URL Filtering and Anti-Virus are required for this.

Page 10 of 12

91. SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following

Security Policy Management and Log Analysis

Security Policy Management. Log Analysis. System Health Monitoring. Multi-Domain Security Management.

Security Policy Management Log Analysis and System Health Monitoring

Security Policy Management. Threat Prevention rules. System Health Monitoring and Multi-Domain Security Management.

92. To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Protections

IPS Protections

Profiles

ThreatWiki

93. DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

Inspection Policies

Shared Policies

Unified Policies

Standard Policies

94. Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?

Application Control rule

Manual NAT rule

IPS bypass rule

Firewall rule

95. In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

SmartConsole

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

Security Management Server

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

96. Which command shows the installed licenses?

cplic print

print cplic

fwlic print

show licenses

97. Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Password

Certificate

MD5

Pre-shared secret

98. Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

Publish database

Save changes

Install policy

Activate policy

99. For Automatic Hide NAT rules created by the administrator what is a TRUE statement?

Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is enabled by default

Automate NAT rules are supported for Network objects only.

Automatic NAT rules are supported for Host objects only.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is disabled by default

100. Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Slow path

Firewall path

Medium path

Accelerated path

Page 11 of 12

101. Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

Client machine IP address.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

Log server IP address.

Gateway proxy IP address.

102. In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.

Hide; source

Static; source

Simple; source

Hide; destination

103. Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ___________ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

SmartView Web Application

SmartTracker

SmartMonitor

SmartReporter

104. Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Identity Collector

Endpoint VPN client

SmartConsole

Proxy Server

105. Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

Accept all encrypted traffic

Specific VPN Communities

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

106. Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the

accounting client

Location

Payload

Destination

Identity

107. What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

Automatic Static NAT

Manual Hide NAT

Automatic Hide NAT

Manual Static NAT

108. Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

fwd

fwm

cpm

cpd

109. Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

Two; security management and endpoint security

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

110. To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members? Choose the best answer.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

cphaprob Ca if

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

Page 12 of 12

111. Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Shared secret

Certificate

One-time password

Token

112. What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

Check Point CCSA R81 156-215.81 Exam Practice Questions

Check Point CCSA R81 156-215.81 Exam Practice Questions

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