D-CIS-FN-23 Exam Dumps - Dell Cloud Infrastructure and Services Foundations 2023 - Free Latest Dumps for IT Certification Exams

D-CIS-FN-23 Exam Dumps – Dell Cloud Infrastructure and Services Foundations 2023

dumps2024-02-29T14:05:21+08:00

The D-CIS-FN-23 exam is a related test for Dell Cloud Infrastructure and Services Foundations 2023 certification. There are 60 questions in the real Dell Cloud D-CIS-FN-23 exam, and you have 90 minutes to answer all the questions. The required passing score for the D-CIS-FN-23 exam is 60%. We provide the latest D-CIS-FN-23 exam dumps, which are valuable in your preparation. Free Dell Cloud D-CIS-FN-23 exam dumps are available below.

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1. What is graceful degradation of an application?

Application maintains limited functionality even when some of the modules are not available.

Application can accept all requests from users but responds to only high priority requests.

Application retries the service that is temporarily down and makes it available to users.

Application automatically restarts on another virtual machine and provides full functionality.

2. A service is offered to a consumer from 9 A.M. to 6 P.M. Monday through Saturday. The service experiences four hours of downtime during one week.

What is the availability of the service for that week?

90.52%

92.59%

95.26%

97.28%

3. A service is offered to consumers from 9 A.M. to 5 P.M., Monday through Friday. The service experiences downtime from 3 P.M. to 5 P.M. on Wednesday of a given week.

What is the service availability for that week?

95.00%

95.88%

96.42%

98.33%

4. What activity is included in a compliance checklist when moving data to the cloud?

Review and evaluate the usage of encryption to protect consumers’ data

Ensure adherence to the security demands that are expressed in contracts

Determine if appropriate governance processes are available to meet consumers’ requirements

Review the financial stability of the provider to ensure its longevity

5. What is the goal of lean practices in a software development methodology?

Create quality software with the minimum number of team members

Create quality software in the shortest time period at the lowest cost

Develop software using 12-Factor modern application practices

Develop and deploy software using third platform technologies

6. What is an advantage of asynchronous remote replication?

Supports replication across any geographic location without impacting response time

Ensures source LUN and replica have identical data at all times

Requires less storage space for the replica than the source LUN

Provides a near zero recovery point objective without impacting response time

7. What is a characteristic of Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)?

Uses XML for formatting messages

Specifies binding of FC and Ethernet frames

Identifies resources based on URIs

Provides 64-bit World Wide Node Name

8. What is Representational State Transfer (REST)?

Cloud interface standard for portability

Client-server software architectural style

Language to define a service, independent of provider

Protocol for compute-to-storage communication

9. Which encapsulation function is performed by a Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter?

SCSI data into FC frames

FC frames into IP packets

Ethernet frames into FC frames

FC frames into Ethernet frames

10. What is an example of OS hardening?

Deleting unused programs and installing current updates

Changing OS frequently to run applications

Disallowing unauthorized modifications to application settings

Encrypting application data at rest

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11. What is facilitated by the Topology and Orchestration Specification for Cloud Applications (TOSCA) standard?

Packaging and distribution of virtual appliances across clouds

Preparation of functional interfaces for service orchestration

Portable deployment of services to any compliant cloud

Communication between applications running on a variety of platforms

12. Which are core attributes to a modern infrastructure?

Adaptable, software-defined, and scale-out

Resilient, scale-out, and cloud-enabled

Flash, software-defined, and cloud-enabled

Consolidation, flash, and scale-out

13. Which Dell EMC product provides a converged infrastructure solution?

XC Series Appliance

VxBlock

VxRail Appliance

XtremlO

14. Which component of the cloud reference architecture provides automated policy-driven management and delivery of heterogeneous resources?

Software-defined infrastructure

Orchestration

Business continuity

Cloud service

15. Which data protection solution enables direct backup from primary storage?

Dell EMC Data Domain

Dell EMC ProtectPoint

Dell EMC NetWorker

Dell EMC Avamar

16. Match each key functions of service operation management with its objective.

17. Which VMware product automates performance, capacity, and configuration management?

vCenter Operations Management Suite

vCloud Hybrid Service

vCenter Site Recovery Manager

IT Business Management Suite

18. What is the primary goal of a business continuity solution?

Reduce the amount of investment in protecting an organization’s business-related data

Decreases likelihood of a disaster in a data protection environment to control the loss of data

Ensure data availability that is required to conduct vital business operations

Eliminate security threats in a data protection environment for continuous access to data

19. Which statement describes the service operation management function?

Deciding to deliver those services that provide value to the provider and reduce operating costs

Managing the provider's operational expenditure, budget, and billing requirements

Maintaining deployed services, which ensures that service levels are delivered as committed

Defining a suite of service offerings that aligns to the provider’s strategic business goals

20. What is the role of a proxy server in an image-based backup solution?

Performs backup operations by using the virtual machine snapshot

Stores backup media for a virtual machine backup

Creates the snapshot for the virtual machine to be backed up

Transfers data directly from the guest OS to the backup device

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21. What is the purpose of a bitmap in snapshot creation?

Keeps track of blocks that have changed in the filesystem

Indicates the exact address from which data has to be read

Indicates the exact address to where data has to be written

Keeps track of the number of blocks that are highly utilized

22. What is a key function of the cloud service component?

Allows consumers to create service offerings for a service catalog

Enables service providers to request the purchase of new IT resources

Presents cloud infrastructure for use of services by consumers

Allows consumers to modify the existing service offerings in a service catalog

23. An organization is using a shared file system to manage virtual machine (VM) files.

Which statement is true about the file system?

It enables VM files to be stored on remote file servers.

It is installed on the local storage of the computer system.

It enables multiple hypervisors to write to a VM file concurrently.

It is installed on the guest operating system of each V

24. A cloud service provider has standalone mechanisms such as intrusion detection and prevention systems and firewalls in a cloud infrastructure.

Which security mechanism integrates with these mechanisms and uses heuristics to learn user behavior and detect fraudulent activity?

iSNS discovery domain

Hardening

Adaptive security

Kerberos

25. In which step of the service enablement roadmap is the existing IT infrastructure transformed to deliver the required cloud services?

Build

Plan

Understand

Enable

26. Which compute system component runs software programs?

CPU

RAM

GPU

27. Which product enables IT organizations to ensure optimum resource usage and configuration compliance in virtualized and cloud environments?

VMware vCenter Manager

VMware vRealize Operations Management Suite

VMware vRealize Automation Suite

VMware vSphere with Operations Management

28. What impacts the application response time in synchronous remote replication?

Buffer size at the source storage system

Size of the replica

Distance between the two sites

Size of the source LUN

29. What is a service template?

Collection of interrelated hardware and software components that constitute a service

Source-code-based specification used by services as an interface to communicate with each other

Entry in the service catalog that describes constraints, policies, rules, price, and SLA

Specification related to the terms of service usage, configuration options, and termination of a service

30. Which Fibre Channel switch mechanism logically segments node ports within a fabric into groups and enables communication with each other within the group?

Zoning

LUN masking

Fabric binding

Port binding

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31. What is used to update information in a configuration management database?

Performance management tool

Capacity management tool

Configuration manager

Discovery tool

32. Which encapsulation function is performed by an iSCSI Host Bus Adapter?

SCSI data into IP packets

SCSI data into FC frames

SCSI data into FCIP frames

Both SCSI data and FC frames into IP packets

33. What is a characteristic of the subscription by time chargeback model?

Cost of providing a cloud service for a period of time is divided among a predefined number of consumers

Easier to manage financially with a predetermined, reoccurring billing cycle

Heavy service usage by one line of business over another does not automatically incur penalties

Controls the service usage by using electronic tickets over a short period

34. Which two are key requirements for fault tolerance?

Document SPOF and Fault Elimination

Fault Isolation and Eliminate SPOF

Network Isolation and Eliminate SPOF

RAID Storage and Fault Isolation

35. Which data protection solution enables organizations to protect, manage, and recover data at scale across diverse environments?

Dell PowerProtect DD Series Appliances

Dell Data Domain

Dell Avamar

Dell PowerProtect DP Series Appliances

36. What enables LUNs to be assigned to the world-wide name of a specific host bus adapter?

LUN rebalancing

LUN hardening

LUN-based zoning

LUN masking

37. What is a benefit of stretching a compute cluster across service availability zones in a cloud environment?

Enables dynamic workload balancing across zones

Provides high security for compute systems across zones

Reduces bandwidth requirements for replication across zones

Reduces the possibility of disasters occurring in one of the zones

38. What describes network-attached storage (NAS)?

High-performance file server that either has integrated storage or is connected to external storage

Dedicated file server that maintains the mapping between the object IDs and the file system namespace

Storage system used for creation and assignment of block storage volumes to compute systems

File storage that stores data in the form of objects based on the content and other attributes of the data

39. A cloud service provider is concerned about an attacker gaining access to consumers' confidential information by compromising the password database.

Which security mechanism should the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the risk due to this attack?

Multi-factor authentication

Data shredding

Strong authorization

Malware protection software

40. Which Dell Technologies product can automate and centralize the collection and analysis of data across physical and virtual environments?

NetWorker

Avamar

SourceOne

Data Protection Advisor

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41. What is the goal of governance?

Adhere to government laws and regulations.

Identify gaps in the ability to stand-up cloud services.

Identify internal and external vulnerabilities.

Establish the likelihood of threat occurrence.

42. What is an accurate statement about an active/active service availability zone configuration?

It provides a lower recovery time objective (RTO).

The zones must be connected over a FC network.

The zones must be located more than 200 km apart.

It has reduced bandwidth requirements for replication across zones.

43. What is used to prioritize the latency-sensitive network traffic in order to provide better network service in comparison to less critical network traffic?

Quality of Service

Traffic shaping

Network storm control

Multipathing

44. In the event of a virtual machine failure, which technique provides zero downtime?

Fault tolerance

Clone

Snapshot

Backup

45. Which process enables a cloud service provider to ensure that external laws and regulations are being adhered to and that the adherence can be demonstrated?

Compliance management

Governance

Auditing

Risk management

46. Which software-defined storage controller function gathers data about the components and brings them under its control and management?

Storage provisioning

Storage discovery

Resource abstraction and pooling

Storage component management

47. Which image represents the correct sequence of steps in a Kerberos mechanism?

A)

Exhibit A

Exhibit B

Exhibit C

Exhibit D

48. Which storage data protection technique provides space-optimal data redundancy to prevent data loss against multiple disk drive failures?

Erasure coding

Cache protection

RAID

Dynamic disk sparing

49. Which image represents the correct sequence of steps to determine price per service?

A)

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

50. Which RSA product enables multi-factor authentication?

SecurID

Archer eGRC

Envision

BSAFE

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51. What workflow software enables automation of complex IT tasks?

VMware vRealize Orchestrator

Dell EMC XtremIO

VMware HA

Dell EMC ScaleIO

52. What is a goal of governance?

Reviewing audit controls and processes

Managing and mitigating uncertainties

Demonstrating adherence to government laws

Identifying internal and external vulnerabilities

53. A compute system is configured to access files from a network-attached storage system.

What is a characteristic of the file system?

Managed by the object-based storage device node

Managed by the compute system

Managed by the storage system

Part of the storage area network

54. What ensures that the cloud services and service creation processes adhere to relevant policies and legal requirements?

Problem management

Risk management

Audit management

Compliance management

55. A consumer is interested in a service that provides multiple operating systems and programming frameworks for application development and deployment.

Which cloud service model meets these requirements?

Storage as a Service

Platform as a Service

Software as a Service

Data as a Service

56. Which statement describes the OAuth mechanism?

An open authorization mechanism that allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner

A network authentication protocol that provides strong authentication for client/server applications by using secret-key cryptography

An open authentication standard in which a service provider uses authentication services from an OpenID provider

A mechanism designed to examine data packets traversing a network and compare them to a set of filtering rules

57. What is a benefit of hyper-threading?

Improved processor utilization

Reduced processor cost

Concurrent execution of multiple threads

Pool processors across compute systems

58. When configuring an authentication mechanism using Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), where should the CHAP secret be configured?

Initiator and target

Initiator only

Target only

Application server

59. What is a benefit of link aggregation?

Saves bandwidth by restricting traffic to a specific potentially congested ISL

Improves performance by combining two or more parallel ISLs into a single physical ISL

Optimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISL

Improves ISL utilization by increasing the network traffic on a specific ISL

60. What is a characteristic of a converged infrastructure?

Eliminates CAPEX

Eliminates OPEX

Does not require a separate storage array

Enables rapid scalability

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61. Refer to the exhibit, which associates labels A, B, C, and D with planes within the software-defined infrastructure.

What set of labels is correct?

A = Data plane B = Control plane C = Management plane D= Service plane

A = Data plane B = Service plane C = Management plane D = Control plane

A = Management plane B = Service plane C = Data plane D = Control plane

A = Control plane B = Management plane C = Service plane D = Data plane

62. Which compute system component contains boot firmware?

Operating System

Hard Disk Drive

Read Only Memory

Random Access Memory

63. The incident management team is unable to determine the root cause of an incident.

To which team should the error-correction activity be transferred?

Performance Management

Change Management

Availability Management

Problem Management

64. Which statement is true about virtual machine (VM) snapshots?

A snapshot holds only changed blocks.

A single delta disk file is used for all the snapshots of a V

A snapshot provides a zero recovery point objective.

A parent virtual disk is not required for recovery from a snapshot.

65. What is a virtual appliance?

A preconfigured virtual machine, preinstalled with a guest OS and an application, dedicated to a specific function

A master copy of a virtual machine with a standardized virtual hardware and software configuration that is used to create new virtual machines

An interface to view and manage the virtual machines on a physical compute system or a compute cluster

Software installed on a computer system that enables multiple virtual machines to share the resources of the computer system

66. What happens when a link in a link aggregation group is lost?

All the network traffic is held in the queue until the link is repaired

All network traffic on that link is redistributed to another link aggregation group

All the network traffic is resent by the sender after the link is repaired

All network traffic on that link is redistributed across the remaining links in that group

67. Which storage-defined controller function abstract physical storage systems into virtual storage systems and virtual storage pools as per policies?

Storage Provisioning

Resource abstraction and pooling

Storage discovery

Storage component management

68. What is the correct sequence of steps involved in synchronous remote replication?

69. A development group is using an iterative and incremental software development method.

Which standard is being utilized?

Agile

ITIL

DevOps

Orchestration

70. An organization plans to migrate an application that has loosely coupled components.

Which migration strategy is suitable for such an application?

Hybrid

Forklift

Functional

Compatible

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71. Match each replication type with the appropriate description.

Continuous Data Protection (CDP) - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to both the source and the remote replica before it is acknowledged to the compute system Snapshot - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system Asynchronous - Allows data recovery to any point in time Synchronous - Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally

Continuous Data Protection (CDP) - Allows data recovery to any point in time Snapshot - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system Asynchronous - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to both the source and the remote replica before it is acknowledged to the compute system Synchronous - Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally

Continuous Data Protection (CDP) - Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally Snapshot - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system Asynchronous - Allows data recovery to any point in time Synchronous - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system

Continuous Data Protection (CDP) - Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally Snapshot - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to both the source and the remote replica before it is acknowledged to the compute system Asynchronous - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system Synchronous - Allows data recovery to any point in time

72. Which cloud service model enables an organization to deploy a proprietary operating system and applications on a cloud provider's resources?

Infrastructure as a Service

Platform as a Service

Software as a Service

Desktop as a Service

73. A Cloud Service Brokerage combines cloud services provided by multiple cloud service providers into one or more new services. The specific number of services they combine varies based on user logic.

Which type of Cloud Service Brokerage is it?

Integration

Aggregation

Intermediation

Arbitrage

74. Which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction if two disks fail?

RAID 0

RAID 1

RAID 5

RAID 6

75. What is a function of a cloud portal?

Updates IT resources database

Replicates container resources in a web portal

Interacts with the orchestration layer

Creates workflows for automated scheduling

76. What is a benefit of standardizing the cloud interface?

Enhances portability and interoperability across clouds

Reduces service provisioning time and operating expenditures

Provides flexibility and scalability to configure resources

Personalizes the functional and management interfaces of a cloud

77. Which solution provides the capability to restore data to any previous point in time?

Image-based backup

Asynchronous replication

Guest-level backup

Continuous data protection

78. Consider a virtual machine (VM) with 2 GB memory capacity and 1200 MHz processing power as its lower bounds, and 4 GB memory capacity and 2400 MHz processing power as its upper bounds.

What is the effect on the VM if the memory capacity or processing power available to the VM is less than 2 GB and 1200 MHz respectively?

The VM will not power on using this configuration.

The VM will run with degraded performance.

The VM will allow only a few applications to run.

The VM will allow only one operating system to be installed.

79. What is specified by a service attribute?

Relationships between services

Configurations of service components

Management operations

Structure of a service

80. Which resource management technique improves utilization of storage by reducing the amount of allocated-but-unused physical storage?

Virtual storage provisioning

Automated storage tiering

Storage pool rebalancing

Cache tiering

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81. What are two components of an FCoE network?

E_Port, port zone

FCoE Bridge, FC Host Bus Adapter

TCP/IP, Fibre Channel

Converged Network Adapter, FC Forwarder

82. What is the correct sequence of steps in asynchronous remote replication?

Step 1: Compute system writes data to source. Step 2: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system. Step 3: Data is transmitted to the replica (target). Step 4: Target acknowledges back to source.

Step 1: Compute system writes data to source. Step 2: Data is transmitted to the replica (target). Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source. Step 4: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system.

Step 1: Compute system writes data to source. Step 2: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system. Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source. Step 4: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).

Step 1: Compute system writes data to source. Step 2: Data from source is replicated to replica (target). Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source. Step 4: Source acknowledges write complete to the compute system.

83. Which activity is carried out during the service termination phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

De-provisioning the service instance

Asking for the service contract

Establishing the billing policy

Providing the final service assessment report

84. A cloud provider installs a virtual firewall on a hypervisor to reduce the scope of a security breach when there is already a network-based firewall deployed in the cloud environment.

Which strategy did the cloud provider use to mitigate the risk of security threats?

Trusted computing base

Defense-in-depth

Information assurance framework

Adaptive security

85. What is a characteristic of thin LUNs?

When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is automatically reclaimed to the pool.

When a thin LUN is created, physical storage is fully allocated for it

Once a thin LUN is created it cannot be destroyed until all data is deleted from it

When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is reserved until an administrator reclaims it

86. An organization plans to deploy remote replication between two sites for disaster recovery without affecting the application response time. The two sites are 1000 miles (1600 km) apart.

Which solution would you recommend to the organization?

Snapshot replication

Image-based replication

Synchronous replication

Asynchronous replication

87. Which product delivers software-defined networks and security with a broad range of services, including a virtual firewall, virtual private network, load balancing, and VXLAN extended networks?

RSA Archer eGRC

RSA Adaptive Authentication

VMware vCloud Networking and Security

RSA Security Analytics

88. What do consumers use to manage rented service instances?

Unified manager

Orchestrator

Software-defined controller

Cloud interface

89. Which APEX custom solution allows customers to choose their hardware, software, services, capacity, and offers usage-based payments?

Data Center Utility

Backup Services

Private and Hybrid Cloud

Flex on Demand

90. What is an advantage of adopting a microservices strategy in an application development environment?

All microservices of an application are always updated at the same time for maintaining consistency in the application

Every microservice can be deployed, upgraded, scaled, and restarted independent of other services in the application

Microservices are tightly coupled so it is easy to scale all the services at once to meet business demands

Microservices provide the application platform to implement DevOps in the organization easily and at low cost

Page 10 of 12

91. What is a function of the discovery operation during the service operation phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

Collects information about people involved in the service operations

Collects information about services available in the catalog

Provides visibility into each Cloud service asset employed

Restores service levels while continuously optimizing operations

92. Which plane in a software-defined storage environment manages and provisions storage?

Application

Service

Data

Control

93. Which method optimizes network performance by distributing network traffic across the shared bandwidth of all the ISLs?

Link aggregation

Network zoning

Network segmentation

Link failover

94. Which protocol is most commonly used for compute-to-computer communication?

TCP/IP

FCIP

iSCSI

95. An organization wants to deploy performance sensitive applications to meet their business requirements.

Which type of storage device is suitable?

SATA drive

Solid-state drive

SAS drive

Optical disk drive

96. How is a node added to a virtual storage area network (VSAN) created on a Fibre Channel SAN?

Assign the VSAN ID to an F_Port on a FC switch Connect the N_Port on the node to the F_Port

Assign the VSAN ID to the N_Port on the node Connect the N_Port to an E_Port on a FC switch

Assign the VSAN ID to an E_Port on a FC switch Connect the N_Port on the node to the E_Port

Assign the VSAN ID to the N_Port on the node Connect the N_Port to an F_Port on a FC switch

97. Which EMC security product measures the risk associated with a user’s login and post-login activities by evaluating a variety of risk indicators?

RSA Security Analytics

RSA Adaptive Authentication

RSA Archer eGRC

RSA SecurID

98. Which technique of an intrusion detection and prevention system relies on a database that contains known attack patterns, and scans events against it?

Signature-based detection

Anomaly-based detection

Device-based detection

Plug-in-based detection

99. Which entities are involved in the OAuth mechanism?

Resource owner, resource server, client, authorization server

Resource owner, resource server, client, application server

Resource client, resource server, owner, authentication server

Resource client, resource server, owner, application server

100. What is a function of business relationship management?

Determine if the capacity of IT services can deliver the agreed upon service levels

Identity requirements and ensure that the appropriate services are provided

Identify accurate information for all operational services

Determine what the sufficient capacity is to meet business demand

Page 11 of 12

101. Which host-based security attribute supports audit, multifactor authentication, and IP address filtering?

Virtual machine hardening

Hypervisor hardening

Application hardening

Operating system hardening

102. Which management process ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure in a data center?

Availability management

Security management

Capacity management

Performance management

103. What type of cloud security control is log auditing?

Detective control

Corrective control

Preventive control

Technical control

104. Which EMC product offers customers a choice of hypervisor, compute system, and network technology?

VSPEX

Vblock

VPLEX

VNX

105. Which Dell EMC product provides software-defined object storage?

Isilon

XtremIO

Data Domain

Elastic Cloud Storage (ECS)

106. Which cloud security control mechanism monitors activity using video surveillance cameras and detects unusual activities using sensors and alarms?

Administrative control

Technical control

Corrective control

Physical control

107. What is a function of a virtual switch?

Maintains the MAC address table to perform OSI Layer 3 operations

Configures load balancing policies across virtual HBA ports

Directs network traffic to and from virtual machines

Shares bandwidth of a physical NIC with other virtual switches

108. A cloud service provider uses a resource pooling approach to improve the utilization of resources by sharing them with multiple customers.

What mechanism should the cloud provider deploy to prevent one consumer from accessing the virtual machines of another consumer?

Hypervisor-based resource pooling

Secure multitenancy through isolation

Pooling of resources through multitenancy

Virtual machine-based resource pooling

109. What is an advantage of using a distributed virtual switch?

It eliminates the requirement of individually configuring policies to hypervisor kernel ports

It enables management of the instances of the distributed virtual switch from a centralized server

It enables physical NICs to use MAC addresses for transmission of frames

It aggregates both physical and distributed virtual switches across a cloud infrastructure

110. What is the Open Cloud Computing Interface (OCCI) standard?

Specification for the IaaS management interface

Standard for the functional interface of a storage service

Standard for the PaaS functional interface

Specification for both the management and functional interfaces

Page 12 of 12

111. What is the correct sequence of steps to determine service pricing?

Aggregate all costs (CAPEX and OPEX) per service Add margin over service cost Calculate per-unit service cost Establish a stable per-unit cost baseline

Add margin over service cost Calculate per-unit service cost Establish a stable per-unit cost baseline Aggregate all costs (CAPEX and OPEX) per service

Establish a stable per-unit cost baseline Add margin over service cost Aggregate all costs (CAPEX and OPEX) per service Calculate per-unit service cost

Calculate per-unit service cost Aggregate all costs (CAPEX and OPEX) per service Add margin over service cost Establish a stable per-unit cost baseline

D-CIS-FN-23 Exam Dumps – Dell Cloud Infrastructure and Services Foundations 2023

D-CIS-FN-23 Exam Dumps – Dell Cloud Infrastructure and Services Foundations 2023

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