ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) CTFL_Syll2018 Free Dumps Share

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ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) CTFL_Syll2018 exam contains 40 multiple-choice questions. The required passing score for the ISTQB CTFL_Syll2018 exam is 65%, which means you need to answer 26 questions correctly. The Foundation Level Certificate exam will be based on this syllabus 2018. We provide the latest ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) CTFL_Syll2018 exam dumps, which are valid in your preparation. Free ISTQB CTFL_Syll2018 exam dumps are available below.

Page 1 of 11

1. Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

Memory is leaking

Features are only partially implemented

Data structures that are used before initialization

Division by zero

2. Which of the following is correct?

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

3. The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).

Which sentence is correct?

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

4. A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle.

Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

5. Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

Bugs found during system testing

Bugs found during unit testing

Bugs found during integration testing

6. Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested.

What is the term used to define this type of testing?

Reliability Testing

Confirmation Testing

Maintainability Testing

Regression Testing

7. What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

8. Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

Average number of expected defects per requirement

Number of test cases run

Deviation from test milestone dates

9. Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

Budget to do testing

A particular tester involved in testing

Level of risk of the product or features

Time available to do testing

10. What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound

The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs

Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios

The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

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11. Which of the following test techniques is structure-based?

Control flow testing

Use case testing

State transition testing

Decision table testing

12. Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

Black-box testing

White-box testing

Experience-based testing

Component testing

13. Which of the following statements is correct?

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

14. In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

15. Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Code inspection

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

Functional Testing

Coverage analysis

16. Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

17. Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Finding defects

Providing information for decision-making

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

18. Which statement about use case testing is true?

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

19. When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved.

Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage?

multiple condition coverage

decision table

use case testing

statement coverage

20. Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

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21. The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

a very high number

22. Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

Modeling tool

Static analysis tool

Coverage measurement tool

Defect tracking tool

23. The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test.

For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

24. Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

Defect debugging and resolution

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

Characteristics of the development process

Characteristics of the product

25. Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

26. Given the following requirement:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

27. Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?

Variables that are never used

Coding standard violations

Memory leaks

Uncalled functions and procedures

28. Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

How to fix the defect

Severity and priority

Test environment details

How to reproduce the defect

29. Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

30. Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested.

At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

Implementation and execution

Requirements specification

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

Analysis and design

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31. A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system.

This is an example of test of which test type?

Regression tests

Non-functional tests

Structural tests

Unit tests

32. Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

0,1,8,21,22

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

2,3,19,20

1,2,20,21

33. A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

34. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with test #1)

1-4-2-7-5-6-3

1-6-2-5-7-4-3

1-6-4-7-5-3-2

1-2-6-7-4-5-3

35. A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted.

Assume that only integer values can occur.

Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

0-1999-2000-5000

1-2000-5001-10000

0-100-2000-6000

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

36. The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

Defect detected by. Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1,1 click ENTER to continue to screen 2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.

Add an impact analysis

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

Add information about which web browser was used

37. Which of the following statements is true?

Incident management tools are used by testers only

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

Test management tools are used by managers only

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

38. An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Incident Management Tool

Configuration Management Tool

Test Execution tool

Backup tool

39. Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I, Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II, Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III, Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV, The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

I, Ill

II, Ill

II, IV

I, IV

40. "Statement Testing" is part of;

Experience based testing

Decision Testing

Specification Based testing

Structured based testing

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41. The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

42. Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

Defining the amount, level of detail structure, and templates for the test documentation.

Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

Adequacy of the test approaches taken.

Discussions on disaster recovery.

43. A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

44. Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.

Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.

Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

45. What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?

(i) The exit criteria.

(ii) The budget.

(iii) How big the test team is.

(iv) The product's risk profile.

(v) How good the testing tools are.

(vi) Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

i and ii and iv and vi

i and ii and iii and vi

ii and iii and iv and v

i and ii and v and vi

46. Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?

An item or event of a component or system that can be verified by one or more test cases.

The grouping of a composite set of test cases which, when tested as a whole, reveal a positive or negative result.

A testable component derived from business requirements.

Applies to software testing only.

47. End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

48. What is static analysis?

The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.

A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.

It is a testing technique used during system testing.

49. Component testing may include:

Sociability testing.

User acceptance testing.

Beta testing.

The use of stubs and drivers.

50. Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Technical Review

Inspection

Walkthrough

Informal review

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51. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

52. Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

53. System testing is:

Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.

The responsibility of the users of a system.

Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development project.

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

54. A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.

Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non-functional requirements expressed in this statement?

Performance, Usability, Regression.

System, Load, Fail-over.

Performance, Load, Stress.

Load, Volume and Component.

55. When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

56. Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

Equivalence partitioning

State transition testing

Boundary value analysis

Statement coverage

57. Which of the following are valid test objectives?

(i) Finding defects.

(ii) Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.

(iii) Preventing defects.

(iv) Debugging the code.

i, ii and iii

i, ii and iv

ii and iii

i and iv

58. What can testing demonstrate?

Testing can demonstrate that there are no defects

Testing can demonstrate that there are defects

Testing can demonstrate that the software is correct

Testing can demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software

59. Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

A form of white-box testing.

A method to reduce test coverage.

60. Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Determine differences between files or databases.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

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61. What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

62. Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

The last executable statement within a component.

Cost overruns.

63. What is decision table testing?

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

It’s a static test design technique.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

64. Which of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.

Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.

Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.

Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

65. Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

Software traceability process

Incidence management process

Testing design process

Configuration management process

66. What is the value of static code analysis?

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

Early defect detection

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

67. Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?

(i) In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.

(ii) Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.

(iii) A use-case describes interactions between actors.

(iv) An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.

(v) Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.

(vi) Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

ii, iii, iv, v

i, iii, v, vi

i, ii, iv, v

iii, iv, v, vi

68. It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

Yes, it’s strongly recommended.

No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts

Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations

Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

69. Refer to the exhibit

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.

(i) X-Z-V-W

(ii) W-Y-U-U

(i) = S1 C S2 C S3 C S4 C S2 and (ii) = S4 C S2 C S4 C S4 C S4

(i) = S1 C S2 C S3 C S4 C S4 and (ii) = S2 CS4 C S4 C S4 C S2

(i) = S2 C S3 C S4 C S2 C S2 and (ii) = S4 C S2 C S4 C S4 C S4

(i) = S2 C S3 C S4 - S4 C S2 and (ii) = S2 CS3 C S4 CS4 C S4

70. A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

Page 8 of 11

71. What are metrics NOT used for?

To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.

To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.

To apply to the RAD development model.

To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.

72. Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?

To be based on specifications

To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation

To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system

To include both functional and non-functional testing

73. In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:

_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.

_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.

_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

$28,000

$1,500

$33,501

$5,000

74. What is a test condition?

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

75. Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Independent testers within the development teams

Independent testers from the user community

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

Code tested by another developer from the development team

76. Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

Automate repetitive tasks

Automating repetitive inspections

77. What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

Use case testing

Boundary value testing

Statement testing and coverage

State transition testing

78. What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?

(i) Identification of configuration items of the software or system.

(ii) Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.

(iii) Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.

(iv) Number of occurrences of the incident.

(v) Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.

Number of correct answers: 1

i, ii, iii

ii, iii

i, iii, iv

i, ii, iii, v

79. “Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

80. Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects.

What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a) Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b) Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c) Always outsource testing activities.

d) Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

a and b

a, b and c

a, b and d

a and c

Page 9 of 11

81. Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]

Use of formal techniques requires expensive training

Only experience can ensure all functionality is covered

Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques

Formal techniques require the use of expensive tools

82. Which of the following test design techniques is classified as a structure-based (white box) technique? [K1]

Exploratory testing

Decision table testing

State transition testing

Statement testing

83. Why is independent testing important? [K1]

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

84. Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

85. Refer to the exhibit

The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.

Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints? [K3]

b, c, g, d, e, i, a, f, h

a, c, d, b, g, e, i, f, h

c, a, d, b, e, g, i, h, f

d, c, a, e, b, g, i, f, h

86. Which of the following factors will MOST affect the testing effort required to test a software product? [K1]

The number of staff available to execute tests

The level of detail in the test plan

The requirements for reliability and security in the product

The test estimation method used

87. Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

The total number of tests planned

The total number of requirements to be tested

The failure rate in testing already completed

The number of testers used for test execution so far

88. Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels.

Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

b. Incidents closed in systems testing

c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing

d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing

e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

a and e

b and c

d and e

a and b

89. Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test

Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.

Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails. Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions C see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions C see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

90. Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

a. Test data preparation tools

b. Test harness

c. Review tools

d. Test comparators

e. Configuration management tools

a and b

c and d

c and e

b and d

Page 10 of 11

91. Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use

Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

92. Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

93. What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

To identify the requirements for using a tool

To make a selection between alternative tools

To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective

To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

94. Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]

Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution

Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources

Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as test execution

Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail for test procedures used in test execution

95. Refer to the exhibit

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4]

The following test cases have been run:

Test Case 1 covering path P, Q, R, U

Test Case 2 covering path P, Q, S, V

Test Case 3 covering path P, Q, S, W, X

Test Case 4 covering path P, Q, S, W, Y

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%

Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%

Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%

96. Refer to the exhibit

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

97. Refer to the exhibit

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

98. Refer to the exhibit

The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket.

Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]

Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade

Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade

Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service

99. How does software testing contribute to the quality of delivered software? [K2]

By detecting and removing all the defects in the delivered code and ensuring that all tests adhere to the quality standards set for the project

By measuring reliability of the software and ensuring that it is always above 99.99%

By identifying root causes of defects from past projects and using the lessons learned to improve processes and thus help to reduce the defect count

By detecting all deviations from coding good practice and ensuring that these are corrected

100. An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

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101. Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

Correcting defects

Locating defects in the code

Preventing defects

Ensuring no defects are present

102. Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

b and c

a and d

b and e

c and d

103. Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

104. Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

Planning and control

Analysis and design

Implementation and execution

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

105. Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

Independence from the production process

A belief that programmers always make mistakes

Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program

Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) CTFL_Syll2018 Free Dumps Share

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) CTFL_Syll2018 Free Dumps Share

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